Does the word דרכי [darchei] ever take a dage"sh in the cha'f? As far as I know, it's always rafe"h in every occurance in Tanach, and hence for example the Darchei Mosheh by the Ram"a [as opposed to the Darkei Mosheh]. Would the proper punctuation of a sefer be Darkei Teshuvah [with a dage'sh] or Darchei Teshuvah [without a dage'sh]? What is more proper grammatically? I checked my Even Shushan concordance and he lists 13 occurrences of darchei [and other examples with other suffixes or prefixes] but no examples of darkei.
Where is my mistake in assuming that the sefer would be called the Darchei Teshuvah and not Darkei Teshuvah if darkei is not a word that occurs in Tanach even though darchei is a word that occurs in Tanach*?
Please educate me.


*Other than my general ignorance.

How about Breishis 24:42

Good point, but that's a different word. "Darki" is "my derech". "Darchei" is "the derachim of". It's Darchei teshuvah, the paths of teshuvah. I think the grammatical term is the construct form, rather than the singular possessive, if I recall my grammar terms correctly.

I'm not seeing at all how the proper name for the book is Darkei Teshuvah - darkei isn't proper Hebrew punctuation as far as I can tell from Tanach - it never takes a dage'sh in the cha'f when it's in the construct form as in darchei teshuvah. I'm not seeing yet how anyone can make the argument otherwise nor how someone can use another saying "darchei teshuvah" as yet another opportunity to denigrate the poster personally. While I appreciate the need to constantly denigrate a poster personally and endlessly so [as opposed to challenging the substance of the contents of his posts], I'm not entirely convinced yet that this particular instance is yet another opportunity to do so.

Again, I'm happy to hear arguments otherwise and I could be wrong but so far I'm honestly not seeing it. Given that the word is always darchei in Tanach, I would assume one who calls the sefer Darchei Teshuvah would have done so in good faith.

AFAIK it is always rofeh. Perhaps common spoken parlance has made a case for the popular 'darkei,' but given that outside of MIH that Hebrew grammar only derives from the pointing of Tanakh itself, I don't see how it could ever be dageshed.

[Correct me if I'm wrong.]