The gemarah brings a mishnah from Trumos that says that even though a deaf person who is able to speak should not be mafrish trumah lechatchilah, that bedieved it is considered trumah, because he's yotze the brachah even though he can't hear it because it's a derabanan, and also because the brachah is not meakev, apparently because it's not part of the mitzvah. Still, the kriah (saying the seder trumos u'maseros) is mideoraiso and is a chelek of the mitzvah, so according to the gemara's hava amina that all mitzvos that involve speak require that the speaker hear his own words, why should the trumah be considered trumah? Moreover, why doesn't the gemarah, or Rashi, or Tosfos or the Rash in Trumos say anything about the kriah?

Are you sure the keriah is me'akev?

Lemaaseh I don't know, but according to the havah aminah that the bracha is meakev, then the kriah is for sure meakev, unless you want to say that the hava amina of the gemarah is that trumah without the brachah would be like a mitzvah habah beaveirah, and the gemarah holds that if you try to do something bederech isur, it's not chal, which is a machlokes somewhere...